PMT 4910 Advanced Certification Practice Exam

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• An Acquisition Category I program is best described as a:
• What is PERT and how does it differ from a purely deterministic CPM estimate?
• Which of the following describes the difference between an issue and a risk?
• Which term describes tasks that must be finished before another task can start?
• What does a RACI matrix identify?
• Which document is used to request funding from the Office of the Secretary of Defense through the Lead Service during the Programming Phase?
• Within the PPBE process, moving funding between programs within the same year typically requires which type of reprogramming?
• As a Program Manager ensuring team members understand the organization’s vision and goals and the boundaries of empowerment, which empowerment component best reflects this approach?
• Which document captures the risk management model used in DoD acquisitions?
• A tech company focusing on performance leadership across applications should pursue which value discipline?
• Will-Cost refers to which of the following in the APB context?
• In CPM, what indicates a task is on the critical path?
• Full-up, system-level testing means testing that satisfies the statutory requirement for realistic testing of which type?
• What type of estimate uses a mathematical relationship between variables to forecast duration?
• Name three essential leadership or team development practices that improve project performance.
• What are common methods for resolving conflicts in project teams?
• Which of the following is an objective of risk process planning?
• What is an Activity-on-Node (AON) network diagram, and why is it preferred for critical path analysis?
• In defense acquisition, demonstration of a new technology in a relevant environment is required before which milestone?
• What is the difference between a product backlog and a sprint backlog in Agile/Kanban contexts?
• Which components should be included in a project communications plan?
• What is the primary objective of the Materiel Solutions Analysis phase?
• Which conflict resolution method is most appropriate when relationships are important and the issue is not critical?
• When tailoring acquisition regulations and instructions for inclusion in the acquisition strategy, what approach should the Program Manager take?
• Prior to Milestone C, how should a LRIP contract type change be addressed?
• Which estimation technique uses optimistic, most likely, pessimistic estimates to calculate expected duration or cost?
• During which phase do you gather data for the Milestone Decision Authority's FRP review?
• Which analysis technique is used to identify and mitigate risks associated with a vendor's development and testing processes?
• Which risk response strategy involves eliminating the risk by changing the project scope?
• What does PDM stand for in project scheduling?
• Which knowledge area primarily maintains the Requirements Traceability Matrix, and what does it ensure?
• Why is it important to collaborate with contractors on RM?
• If a KPP is not achievable without significant cost impact and a change is proposed, who must approve this ACAT I KPP change?
• In the risk management framework, what documents contain the top program risks and the detailed technical approach for risk mitigation?
• Where are the likelihood and consequence parameters documented?
• In accordance with DoDM 5110.04, what action would be appropriate?
• In EVM forecasting, the EAC = AC + (BAC - EV) method assumes remaining work will be completed at what rate?
• In FPRA context, option years can be unfunded and should be excluded from FPRA proposals. Which option is correct?
• Which element serves as the foundation for the contractor's management efforts to develop and deliver the product?
• If DoD pursues funding for a New Start outside the latest President's Budget, what reprogramming action is required?
• Who negotiates FPRA terms with the contractor?
• What are the two Middle Tier Acquisition pathways?
• Which network schedule uses the Activity-on-Arrow method?
• Which time constraint solution is best used when there are activities on the critical path that can be completed faster by adding resources?
• If you contract a university research team to create a new optic lens; a new risk arises from their development/testing procedures. What type of analysis could you use to identify and reduce specific risks from their processes?
• An administrative engineering is what type of common element?
• Regarding the PPBE process, which statement is correct?
• What is governance in project management, and how does it relate to compliance and organizational policies?
• Differentiate between activities and milestones and explain how each is represented in project schedules.
• What is the primary purpose of the project charter, and which process group is responsible for its creation?
• Which of the following components of the Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) is identified by locating the automatically generated red bars?
• Which is a good example of a framing assumption (FA)?
• What is the purpose of a benefits realization plan?
• Which statement best describes an objective of risk process planning?
• In Agile practice, which backlog contains items selected for completion within a specific iteration?
• What is the primary difference between summary schedules and detailed schedules?
• The Independent Technical Risk Assessment (ITRA) team will be composed of ______; who are ______.
• Under DoD Major Capability Acquisition procedures, the update should focus on identification and analysis of AoA, developing the Acquisition Strategy, measures of effectiveness, key cost and capability trades, life-cycle cost, schedule, overall risk, and translating capability gaps into system-specific requirements. Which activity corresponds to this focus?
• Which of the following is not a component of opportunity management (OM)?
• In risk management, where are likelihood and consequence thresholds defined?
• Which document is used to translate capability gaps into system-specific requirements during the early stages of acquisition?
• Which element is typically the smallest unit for cost and schedule estimation?
• A company's organizational structure must be aligned with:
• What does the term option year refer to in government contracts?
• In the risk matrix, Level 4 corresponds to which cost impact range?
• What is the difference between resource leveling and resource smoothing?
• Which decision-making model bases decisions on situational leadership that can be used by anyone, regardless of rank?
• Under which circumstance is a company most likely to price its product to cover only its non-fixed costs?
• In a Gantt chart, which of the following is signified by a solid black bar underneath a red, crosshatched bar?
• A Monte Carlo simulation reports a 75% chance that prototyping tasks will be delayed 17 business days. Based on the likelihood and consequence table, which location on the risk matrix corresponds to this scenario?
• Which task dependency is the rarest type of schedule relationship and involves the successor not being able to finish until the predecessor starts?
• Distinguish between product scope and project scope, and explain why both are important.
• Which approval is required before starting the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction phase?
• Which group primarily uses quarterly earnings reports to evaluate investment decisions?
• What is the primary role of the Defense Contract Management Agency in the context of pricing proposals?
• How should a project forecast final costs and completion time when current performance is unfavorable, and what steps should be taken?
• Which personality model uses dimensions designated Extroversion, Intuition, Feeling, and Judging?
• Which item is least likely to drive differences between contractor and government cost estimates?
• Which schedule type is a summary-level schedule that aggregates detailed tasks into milestones?
• Which statement best describes the Should-Cost and Will-Cost concepts?
• Which term describes embedding changes into the organization’s culture in Kotter's model?
• When should value engineering be applied to maximize cost savings without sacrificing quality?
• Which estimating technique uses a mathematical relationship between variables to estimate duration based on a parameter such as cable count?
• Engineers are tracking a seismometer fix that does not yet meet sensitivity requirements. The improvement is gradual, and there is no guaranteed date for when the item will meet requirements. What is the appropriate step to track the resolution?
• Which items are typically included in a fully burdened cost rate?
• What is the difference between an intermediate schedule and a detailed schedule?
• Which statement about project communications plan components is true?
• Why might a company's gross profit margin on a fixed-price contract be higher than what it negotiated with the government?
• Explain the purpose of a change impact analysis and what it typically evaluates.
• Which document identifies the accomplishments and criteria that must be met to achieve program objectives?
• The Independent Technical Risk Assessment team will be composed of ______; who are _______.
• During the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction (TMRR) phase, which activity is generally conducted?
• How does the Integrated Master Schedule extend from the Integrated Master Plan?
• Describe the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle and its role in quality improvement.
• Which contract type should a contractor pursue if the RFP contains extremely high technical risk and the range of potential cost outcomes is very large, assuming it wants zero cost risk and zero fee risk?
• Which statement is TRUE regarding COTS S/W use?
• Prior to the release of the final request for proposal for the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction phase activities, what must a Program Manager do?
• What is the primary purpose of the Acquisition Strategy in a DoD program?
• What is the primary purpose of risk management within DoD program management?
• Which of the following is a potential benefit of a competitive environment?
• Admitting when there is a lack of understanding or information is an example of which critical-thinking characteristic?
• Which task dependency involves the successor not being able to start until the predecessor starts?
• If SPI > 1 and CPI > 1, what can be inferred about project performance?
• Which network schedule uses three time estimates?
• Who negotiates and uses the APB for tracking and reporting over the life of the program?
• During the Materiel Solution Analysis phase, proactive activities to prevent technical risks focus on which of the following?
• What best describes the role of the Product Support Manager (PSM) when drafting a Product Support Strategy?
• RAM/RACI: Which statement best describes RAM and RACI and how they support project resource management?
• What is the primary purpose of the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) in the defense acquisition process?
• How is a milestone represented in project schedules, and how does it differ from a regular activity?
• A Monte Carlo simulation indicates a 45% chance of a 4-month delay in prototype development. Where would this be located on the risk matrix?
• In the risk matrix, Level 1 corresponds to which schedule impact range?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the 5 Ms of manufacturing?
• What is configuration management in project settings, and what artifacts are typically controlled?
• What is the Acquisition Program Baseline (APB)?
• Which technical review is appropriate to obtain common understanding of system-level technical requirements, costs, schedule, and risks as you begin the TMRR phase?
• Which factor is commonly a driver of differences between contractor and government cost estimates?
• In risk management, what term describes coordinating and implementing actions to reduce risk probability or impact?
• What does EAC stand for, and what are common methods to forecast final cost and duration?
• Which schedule time constraint solution is best used when it is realistically possible to conduct certain tasks at the same time?
• Which Kotter stage involves removing obstacles and modifying systems to support the change vision?
• Which of the following is a step of the DoD Risk Management Process?
• In a RACI matrix, who is typically accountable for an activity?
• A technical publication is what type of common element?
• In coaching, after agreeing on the session topic, the next step is to discuss what John wants to achieve during the session and his long-term goals. This describes which step in the coaching process?
• Which action would be required following a critical Nunn-McCurdy APB cost breach?
• What is the difference between crashing and fast-tracking as schedule compression techniques, and when might you use each?
• Which statement regarding Working Integrated Product Teams (WIPTs) is TRUE?
• Using a frequency compatibility computer model to identify possible interference issues before the design is finalized is an example of which step in the DoD risk management model?
• Which item is NOT a manufacturing risk commonly seen in major capability acquisition programs?
• List four common risk response strategies and provide a short example of each.
• Prior to using the 14-Point Schedule Metrics, the number of tasks with a baseline finish date on or before the reporting period end date needs to be calculated. This describes which data type?
• Which network schedule uses only one time estimate?
• Which statement best describes the Agile development approach?
• In systems engineering, the step that decomposes requirements to determine the functions the system must perform, producing a functional baseline, is called what?
• Which network schedule uses the Activity-on-Node method?
• What method is effective for using risk identification tools to identify risks?
• Why are ethics and professional responsibility important in project management, and what guideline frameworks are commonly referenced?
• Why are quarterly earnings reports important for a publicly traded company?
• Which of the following is a manufacturing risk commonly present in major capability acquisition programs?
• What is a Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) and how does it relate to the WBS?
• Which equation represents Schedule Variance (SV) in Earned Value Management?
• Name three quality management tools and their general purpose.
• Which factor determines whether an option year in a government contract will be funded?
• Which document links project objectives to deliverables by tracing requirements to measurable outcomes, and in which knowledge area is it primarily maintained?
• Which common element would include system requirements and architecture definition?
• Based on a simulation: 50% chance of three-week schedule delay; using the risk table, what is the correct Level and Schedule Impact?
• Define the Critical Path Method (CPM) and its significance in project scheduling.
• What is a Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) and how is it used?
• Which corrective action should be taken when an order for materials will run 75% over budget because it must be shipped by air to meet schedule?
• How does a benefits realization plan help ensure outcomes after closure?
• In risk transfer, which statement best describes the typical arrangement?
• Which statement best describes collaboration in risk management?
• Which 14-Point Schedule metric consists of incomplete tasks with missing predecessor and/or successor tasks?
• Which 14-Point Schedule metric measures the efficiency required to complete a milestone on time?
• Which closeout activity relates to the formal completion of contractual obligations?
• Which artifacts are typically controlled by configuration management?
• Which personality instrument uses a four-letter type designator such as Extroversion, Intuition, Feeling, and Judging?
• In the Co-Active Leadership Model, which role focuses on internal reflection and emotional intelligence?
• How are PV, EV, and AC defined in Earned Value Management?
• Who participates in the negotiation of the APB?
• What is the purpose of defining project boundaries in a scope statement?
• What are buffers in project scheduling, and how can they be used to manage uncertainty without compromising project objectives?
• Which statement best distinguishes qualitative risk analysis from quantitative risk analysis?
• Which step of the DoD Risk Management Process consists of the activities to develop, implement, and document the risk management process?
• Which element explicitly links to the verification and integration activities, ensuring product readiness?
• Which agency is responsible for reviewing FPRA proposals?
• Which Kotter step involves building momentum through short-term wins?
• Which equation defines Cost Variance (CV) and Schedule Variance (SV) in Earned Value Management?
• Which option would violate funding policies during a program's execution?
• Which costs are included in a contractor's fully burdened rate but are not direct costs?
• What factor determines funding for option years in government contracts?
• Within a program, which entity is responsible for overseeing the management of risks, opportunities, and issues?
• Which statement is NOT a potential benefit of a competitive acquisition environment?
• Which tool will help you analyze your program's contract performance to date to identify negative trends and thereby work to prevent risk and issue recurrences?
• In Kotter's eight-step change model, which step focuses on embedding new approaches into the organization's culture?
• True statement about contractor costs?
• What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and how does it relate to deliverables?
• A team believes its thinking is flawed yet presents it as a model of excellence, derailing progress. Which type of thinking did they apply?
• What are the essential components of a scope statement?
• Which term describes a market condition with a single buyer and many sellers?
• Which statement about bottom-up estimation use is true?
• Which of the following is not one of the 5 Ms used to identify manufacturing risks?
• What is the lowest level of detail at which the cost and schedule for the work can be estimated?
• Which item is best to exclude from a forward pricing rate proposal to DCMA?
• Which IM stage is characterized by the scenario: A battery in a new portable wind-measuring system doesn't hold charge; analysis shows moderate effect on program success.
• Which activities are typically included in project closing processes?
• What does FPRA stand for?
• In a simple network with A (3 days) followed by B (5 days) followed by C (2 days), what is the project duration and the correct critical path?
• How do you compute SPI and CPI, and what do values indicate?
• Which statement about costs in the APB is FALSE?
• Which type of risk category considers schedule and cost impacts after testing a prototype, requiring updates to cost and schedule estimates?
• If an option year is unfunded, what should be done with it in FPRA pricing?
• Which document provides formal authorization to proceed and the authority to apply organizational resources, and which process group is responsible for its creation?
• Which estimation technique uses historic data for quick estimates?
• Which role primarily oversees the management of risks, opportunities, and issues in a program?
• In disciplined project scheduling, what term describes the collection of tasks that define the contractor's plan to deliver the product?
• What is the Schedule Baseline used for in project execution?
• What is value engineering in project management, and when would you apply it?
• What is a Lessons Learned Register and when should it be used?
• In a joint defense acquisition program with international partners, which service is typically the lead?
• At the FRP decision, which data does the Milestone Decision Authority review?
• In the Co-Active Leadership Model, which role involves examining emotional intelligence and self-evaluation?
• What is the primary objective of Earned Value Management (EVM) in project performance analysis?
• What is the role of framing assumptions in risk management?
• Which Kotter step focuses on communicating the vision to a broad audience?